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Pearl's avatar

This morning there was an article in the National Post (Canada) claiming that (from a very small study - 39 people) two subvariants of omicron (BA.4 and BA5) will not infect the vaccinated who have had omicron BA.1 (original) but will infect the unvaccinated who have had omicron BA.1. Does this ever end? The vaccinated are twice as likely to be infected with Omicron BA.1 or 2, so why would 4 and 5 be any different (Ontario data) https://nationalpost.com/health/two-new-subvariants-of-covid-appear-to-dodge-natural-immunity

Grasshopper Kaplan's avatar

Its getting to where one can not live freely at all in San Francisco killafornia

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